Energy and Environment Engineering MCQs

Energy and environment engineering is a subject that factually means surroundings in which organisms live. It is the most important and primary input for development. It is a branch of energy engineering which is derived from the environment. Energy is an important input in all sectors of any country's economy. This subject not only focuses on the environment's basic concerns but also on how we can save the environment and makes it a better place to live where all species are satisfied.

Energy and Environment Engineering MCQs: This section contains multiple-choice questions and answers on the Energy and Environment Engineering. It will help the students to test their skills and prepare well for their exams.

List of Energy and Environment Engineering MCQs

1. What do you mean by the term 'sustainability'?

  1. It is the study of how natural systems functions and remain diverse and produce everything it needs for the ecology to remain in balance
  2. It is the capacity to do the work required for all life processes
  3. It is the study which is also termed energy conversion, which is the process of changing energy from one of its forms to another
  4. None of the above

Answer: A) It is the study of how natural systems functions and remain diverse and produce everything it needs for the ecology to remain in balance

Explanation:

It is the study of how natural systems functions and remain diverse and produce everything it needs for the ecology to remain in balance.

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2. Which of the following is considered the pillar of sustainability?

  1. Economic development
  2. Social development
  3. Environmental protection
  4. All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

Explanation:

Economic development, social development, and Environmental protection are the three pillars of sustainability.

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3. ____ is about giving people what they want without compromising their quality of life.

  1. Economic development
  2. Social development
  3. Environmental protection
  4. None of the above

Answer: A) Economic development

Explanation:

Economic development is about giving people what they want without compromising their quality of life, especially in the developing world.

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4. ___ defines how we should study and protect the ecosystem, air quality, integrity, and sustainability of our resources.

  1. Economic development
  2. Social development
  3. Environmental protection
  4. None of the above

Answer: C) Environmental protection

Explanation:

Environmental protection defines how we should study and protect the ecosystem, air quality, integrity, and sustainability of our resources and focus on the elements that place stress on the environment.

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5. Which of the following is the primary goal of sustainability?

  1. The end of poverty and hunger
  2. To achieve gender equality
  3. To include the health of the land, air, and sea
  4. All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

Explanation:

The end of poverty and hunger, and achieving gender equality, including the health of the land, air, and sea are some of the primary goals of sustainability.

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6. Which of the following is a type of non-renewable resource?

  1. Nuclear energy
  2. Solar energy
  3. Geothermal energy
  4. Hydrogen and fuel cells

Answer: A) Nuclear energy

Explanation:

Nuclear energy is a type of non-renewable resource.

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7. Which of the following is energy relies on the nuclear fusion power from the core of the sun?

  1. Hydroelectric energy
  2. Solar energy
  3. Geothermal energy
  4. Hydrogen and fuel cells

Answer: B) Solar energy

Explanation:

Solar energy relies on nuclear fusion power from the core of the sun.

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8. Which form of energy uses the gravitational potential of elevated water which is lifted from the oceans by sunlight?

  1. Hydroelectric energy
  2. Biomass
  3. Geothermal energy
  4. Hydrogen and fuel cells

Answer: A) Hydroelectric energy

Explanation:

Hydroelectric energy uses the gravitational potential of elevated water which is lifted from the oceans by sunlight.

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9. ____ these are not strictly renewable energy resources but are very abundant in availability and are very low in pollution.

  1. Hydroelectric energy
  2. Biomass
  3. Geothermal energy
  4. Hydrogen and fuel cells

Answer: D) Hydrogen and fuel cells

Explanation:

Hydrogen and fuel cells are not strictly renewable energy resources but are very abundant in availability and are very low in pollution.

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10. Production of alcohol for automobile fuel and fueling electric power plants are the modern form of which energy.

  1. Hydroelectric energy
  2. Biomass
  3. Geothermal energy
  4. Hydrogen and fuel cells

Answer: B) Biomass

Explanation:

Some of the modern forms of biomass energy is methane generation and production of alcohol for automobile fuel and fueling electric power plants.

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11. To make the energy transformation more efficient, it is desirable to avoid thermal conversion.
Is this statement true or false?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: A) True

Explanation:

To make the energy transformation more efficient, it is desirable to avoid thermal conversion.

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12. A device that stores energy is sometimes called ____.

  1. Battery
  2. Accumulator
  3. Magpie
  4. All of the above

Answer: A) Battery

Explanation:

A device that stores energy is sometimes called a battery or accumulator.

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13. ____ generate huge amounts of electricity in just a single location.

  1. Solar energy
  2. Fossil fuels
  3. Coal
  4. A wind-up clock

Answer: B) Fossil fuels

Explanation:

Fossil Fuels generate huge amounts of electricity in just a single location.

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14. What is green energy?

  1. It is the energy that is produced in such a way that it reduces coal consumption
  2. It is the energy that is produced in such a way as to minimize its negative impact on the environment
  3. It is the energy that is produced to reduce pollution
  4. All of the above

Answer: B) It is the energy that is produced in such a way as to minimize its negative impact on the environment

Explanation:

Green Energy is the energy that is produced in such a way as to minimize its negative impact on the environment.

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15. Sources of green energy are actually ____.

  1. Renewable Energy sources
  2. Non-renewable Energy sources

Answer: A) Renewable Energy sources

Explanation:

Sources of green energy are renewable energy sources that include energy from the sun, wind water, etc.

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16. In India, ____ has a high speed of winds which can be used for power generation.

  1. Coastal areas of Saurashtra
  2. Western Rajasthan
  3. Some parts of Central India
  4. Only A
  5. All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

Explanation:

Coastal areas of Saurashtra, western Rajasthan and some parts of Central India have a high speed of winds which can be used for power generation.

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17. State whether the statement is True or False?
'The organic matter produced by plants and their derivatives can be used for thermal energy consumption.'

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: A) True

Explanation:

The organic matter produced by plants and their derivatives is called biomass and this biomass can be used for thermal energy consumption.

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18. The energy sources, which provide a net supply of energy are called ____.

  1. Primary energy sources
  2. Secondary energy sources

Answer: A) Primary energy sources

Explanation:

The energy sources, which provide a net supply of energy, are called Primary energy sources.

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19. What is the yield ratio?

  1. It is defined as the energy consumed to the energy produced
  2. It is defined as the energy produced to the energy consumed
  3. It is defined as the energy fed back by the material to the energy received from the environment
  4. It is defined as the energy received from the environment to the energy fed back by the material

Answer: C) It is defined as the energy fed back by the material to the energy received from the environment

Explanation:

Yield ratio is defined as the energy fed back by the material to the energy received from the environment.

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20. Primary energy sources have a ___ yield ratio.

  1. Higher
  2. Lower
  3. Less than 0
  4. More than 1

Answer: A) Higher

Explanation:

Primary energy sources have a higher yield ratio.

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21. The energy sources which do not produce net energy are called ____.

  1. Primary energy sources
  2. Secondary energy sources

Answer: B) Secondary energy sources

Explanation:

The energy sources which do not produce net energy are called secondary energy sources.

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22. Oil, coal, natural gas, and nuclear power are some of the ____ energy sources.

  1. Primary energy sources
  2. Secondary energy sources

Answer: A) Primary energy sources

Explanation:

Oil, coal, natural gas, and nuclear power are some of the primary energy sources.

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23. Solar energy, wind energy, and geothermal energy are some of the _____ energy sources.

  1. Primary energy sources
  2. Secondary energy sources

Answer: B) Secondary energy sources

Explanation:

Solar energy, wind energy, and geothermal energy are some of the secondary energy sources.

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24. Secondary energy sources have ____ yield ratio.

  1. Higher
  2. Less
  3. Less than 0
  4. More than 1

Answer: B) Less

Explanation:

Secondary energy sources have a much less yield ratio.

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25. What is MHD (Magneto Hydro Dynamic)?

  1. MHD is a method of direct conversion of wind energy to electric energy
  2. MHD is a method of direct conversion of wind energy of the flow of a fluid into electrical energy
  3. MHD is a method of direct conversion of electrical energy into wind energy
  4. MHD is a method of direct conversion of hydra energy into electrical energy

Answer: B) MHD is a method of direct conversion of wind energy of the flow of a fluid into electrical energy

Explanation:

MHD is a method of direct conversion of wind energy of the flow of a fluid into electrical energy.

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26. What are aero turbines?

  1. Aero turbines convert wind energy to mechanical energy
  2. Aero turbines convert kinetic energy to mechanical energy
  3. Aero turbines convert the kinetic energy of wind to rotary mechanical energy
  4. Aero turbines convert kinetic energy to wind energy

Answer: C) Aero turbines convert the kinetic energy of wind to rotary mechanical energy

Explanation:

Aero turbines convert the kinetic energy of wind to rotary mechanical energy.

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27. Which energy is the cheapest of all renewable sources of energy?

  1. Hydroelectric energy
  2. Solar energy
  3. Wind energy
  4. Biomass

Answer: B) Solar energy

Explanation:

Among all the renewable energy solar energy is the cheapest form of renewable energy, also it is a pollution-free source of energy.

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28. Which of the following is the disadvantage of a flat plate solar collector?

  1. Flat plate solar collectors do not require orientation towards the sun
  2. Flat plate solar collectors have low thermal efficiency
  3. An anti-freezing solution has to be used to prevent the freezing of heat transferring fluid
  4. Both A and B
  5. Both B and C
  6. All of the above

Answer: E) Both B and C

Explanation:

Flat plate solar collectors have low thermal efficiency and an anti-freezing solution has to be used to prevent the freezing of heat transferring fluid these are the disadvantage of flat plate solar collectors.

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29. ____ and ____ are the basic elements of a solar water heater.

  1. Flat plate collector and an insulated storage tank
  2. Flat plate collector and an absorber
  3. An insulated storage tank and electric generator
  4. Insulated storage and an absorber

Answer: A) Flat plate collector and an insulated storage tank

Explanation:

Flat plate collector and an insulated storage tank are the two basic elements of the solar water heater.

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30. In how many ways electricity can be generated from solar energy?

  1. There is only 1 way to generate electricity from solar energy
  2. There are 2 ways in which we can generate electricity from solar energy
  3. There are more than 2 ways in which we can generate electricity from solar energy
  4. All of the above

Answer: C) There are more than 2 ways in which we can generate electricity from solar energy

Explanation:

There are 2 ways in which we can generate electricity from solar energy, and the two ways are as follows:

  • By solar thermal power production system
  • By solar photovoltaic cells

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31. In which of the following way of electricity generation from solar energy, solar energy is first collected by using a solar pond, a flat plate collector, and turn-able mirrors?

  1. In solar thermal power production system
  2. In solar photovoltaic cells

Answer: A) In solar thermal power production system

Explanation:

In a solar thermal power production system, solar energy is first collected by using a solar pond, a flat plate collector, and turn-able mirrors.

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32. What is the photovoltaic effect?

  1. The photovoltaic effect can be defined as the generation of an electromotive force due to the absorption of ionizing radiation
  2. The photovoltaic effect is the energy that is used to increase the internal energy or temperature of a fluid
  3. The photovoltaic effect is the conversion of solar energy into kinetic energy to electrical energy
  4. All of the above

Answer: A) The photovoltaic effect can be defined as the generation of an electromotive force due to the absorption of ionizing radiation

Explanation:

Photovoltaic effect can be defined as the generation of an electromotive force due to the absorption of ionizing radiation.

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33. Photovoltaic Cells are made up of ____ that generate electricity when they absorb light.

  1. Photons
  2. Electrons
  3. Semiconductors
  4. Conductors

Answer: C) Semiconductors

Explanation:

Photovoltaic Cells are made up of semiconductors that generate electricity when they absorb light.

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34. How many types of solar heating systems are there?

  1. 1 type
  2. 2 types
  3. 3 types
  4. More than 2 types

Answer: B) 2 types

Explanation:

There are 2 types of solar heating systems active and passive.

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35. In which solar heating system, solar radiation is collected by some part of the structure itself or admitted directly into the building through large south-facing windows.

  1. Active systems
  2. Passive systems

Answer: B) Passive systems

Explanation:

In passive systems, solar radiation is collected by some part of the structure itself or admitted directly into the building through large south-facing Windows.

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36. In which Solar Heating System, Solar collectors are used for warming the spaces by heating either water or air.

  1. Active systems
  2. Passive systems

Answer: A) Active systems

Explanation:

In active systems, solar collectors are used for warming the spaces by heating either water or air.

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37. Which of the following are the major merits of solar PV systems over conventional power systems?

  1. The solar PV system can be located at the place of use and hence no or minimum distribution network is required as it is universally available
  2. They have wide power handling capabilities from microwatts to Kilowatts or even megawatts
  3. These systems are quite compatible with almost all environment responses instantaneously to solar radiation and have a long effective life
  4. All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

Explanation:

The major advantages of Solar PV systems are:

  • The solar PV system can be located at the place of use and hence no or minimum distribution network is required as it is universally available
  • They have wide power handling capabilities from microwatts to Kilowatts or even megawatts
  • These systems are quite compatible with almost all environment responses instantaneously to solar radiation and have a long effective life

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38. State whether the statement is true or false - The efficiency of solar cells is high?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: B) False

Explanation:

The efficiency of solar cells is low as solar radiation density is also low.

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39. State whether the statement is true or false – 'The solar cell output is always constant it does not vary anytime.'

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: B) False

Explanation:

The solar cell output is not constant and varies with the time of the day and weather.

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40. In which of the following states India's first nuclear power plant with the capacity of 420 MW is commissioned?

  1. Tarapur (Maharashtra)
  2. Rana Pratap Sagar (Rajasthan)
  3. Kalpakkam (Chennai)
  4. Kakarpara (Gujrat

Answer: A) Tarapur (Maharashtra)

Explanation:

India's first nuclear power plant with a capacity of 420 MW is commissioned at Tarapur (Maharashtra).

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41. ____ is the process of combining two lighter nuclei into heavier a nucleus?

  1. Nuclear fission
  2. Nuclear fusion

Answer: B) Nuclear fusion

Explanation:

Nuclear fusion is the process of combining two lighter nuclei into heavier a nucleus.

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42. Among the following statements, which of the following is correct?

  • Statement 1: During fission, protons are emitted
  • Statement 2: During fusion, neutrons are emitted
  1. Only Statement 1 is correct
  2. Only Statement 2 is correct
  3. Both Statements are correct
  4. Both Statements are wrong

Answer: D) Both Statements are wrong

Explanation:

Correct statements are: During fission neutrons are emitted and during fusion, protons are emitted.

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43. Nuclear Fission and nuclear fusion using which can be performed under controlled conditions?

  1. Nuclear fission
  2. Nuclear fusion

Answer: A) Nuclear fission

Explanation:

Only Nuclear fission can be performed under controlled conditions whereas nuclear fusion cannot be performed under controlled conditions.

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44. Among Nuclear Fission and nuclear fusion which is more harmful?

  1. Nuclear fission
  2. Nuclear fusion

Answer: A) Nuclear fission

Explanation:

Nuclear fission is harmful as the end product is hazardous substances whereas in nuclear fusion the end product is harmless helium.

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45. How many types of plates are used in a lead acid battery?

  1. 6 types
  2. 4 types
  3. 2 types
  4. Only 1 type

Answer: C) 2 types

Explanation:

In lead acid batteries two types of plates are used: Positive and negative.

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46. To avoid direct contact and the short-circuiting of positive and negative plates in lead acid batteries thin sheets of some non-conducting materials are inserted between them what are these thin sheets called?

  1. Cell covers
  2. Separators
  3. Cell connectors
  4. Plates

Answer: B) Separators

Explanation:

To avoid direct contact and the short-circuiting of positive and negative plates in lead acid batteries thin sheets of some non-conducting materials are inserted between them known as Separators.

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47. The cells of a battery are connected in ____?

  1. Series
  2. Parallel

Answer: A) Series

Explanation:

The cells of a battery are connected in series.

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48. An ecosystem structure is divided into how many types?

  1. 2 types
  2. 3 types

Answer: A) 2 types

Explanation:

An ecosystem structure is divided into 2 types: Abiotic components and Biotic components.

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49. ____ refers to the branch of biological science concerned with the relationships and interactions between a living organism and its surroundings or environment.

  1. Abiotic
  2. Biotic
  3. Ecosystem
  4. Ecology

Answer: D) Ecology

Explanation:

Ecology is the branch of Biological science concerned with the relationships and interactions between a living organism and its surroundings or environment.

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50. What is a biome?

  1. A biome is a group of ecosystems having similar types of dominant vegetation
  2. A biome is a group of biotic components having similar types of species
  3. A biome is a group of artificial ecosystems having similar types of working
  4. All of the above

Answer: A) A biome is a group of ecosystems having similar types of dominant vegetation

Explanation:

A biome is a group of ecosystems having a similar type of dominant vegetation.

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51. What is nitrogen fixation?

  1. The process of converting atmospheric hydrogen into nitrates is all nitrogen fixation
  2. The process of converting atmospheric nitrogen into nitrates is all nitrogen fixation

Answer: B) The process of converting atmospheric nitrogen into nitrates is all nitrogen fixation

Explanation:

The process of converting atmospheric nitrogen into nitrates is all nitrogen fixation.

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52. Nitrogen Fixation can be done in how many ways?

  1. 2 ways
  2. More than 2 ways
  3. There is only 1 way
  4. None of the above

Answer: A) 2 ways

Explanation:

Nitrogen Fixation can be done in 2 ways: Non-biological nitrogen fixation and biological nitrogen fixation.

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53. Name the type of food chain which starts from the living green plants also depends on autotrophic energy captured and the movement of this captured energy to herbivorous?

  1. Grazing Food chain
  2. Detritus Food chain

Answer: A) Grazing Food chain

Explanation:

Grazing Food chain, starts from the living green plants and also depends on autotrophic energy captured and the movement of this captured energy to herbivorous.

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54. Name the type of food chain which goes from dead organic matter into microorganisms and then to organism feeding?

  1. Grazing Food chain
  2. Detritus Food chain

Answer: B) Detritus Food chain

Explanation:

Detritus Food chain, goes from dead organic matter into microorganisms and then to organism feeding.

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55. Biological diversity can be described in how many fundamentals and hierarchical related levels of biological organization?

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5

Answer: B) 3

Explanation:

Biological diversity can be described in terms of its three many fundamentals and hierarchical related levels of biological organization. These are as follows: - Ecosystem diversity, species diversity, and genetic diversity.

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56. ____ is the process where a large continuous area of Habitat is both reduced in area and divided into two or more fragments by roads, towns, etc.

  1. Habitat fragmentation
  2. Habitat destruction
  3. Habitat degradation
  4. All of the above

Answer: A) Habitat fragmentation

Explanation:

Habitat fragmentation is the process where a large continuous area of Habitat is both reduced in area and divided into two or more fragments by roads, towns, etc.

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57. Species that are found in a particular area and now where else in the world are referred to as ____.

  1. Endemic species
  2. Exotic species

Answer: A) Endemic species

Explanation:

Species that are found in a particular area and now where else in the world are referred to as endemic species.

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58. Due to which factors plants and animals are in danger of extinction?

  1. Overgrazing by domestic animals can convert the grasslands area into deserts
  2. Destruction of their natural habitats due to expanding Agriculture Organization and industrialization
  3. Poaching of meat, skin, fur, etc
  4. All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

Explanation:

Various factors Due to which plants and animals are in danger of extinction are:

  • Overgrazing by domestic animals can convert the grasslands area into deserts
  • Destruction of their natural habitats due to expanding Agriculture Organization and industrialization
  • Poaching of meat, skin, fur, etc

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59. What is In-situ conservation?

  1. In-situ conservation means the conservation of species particularly endangered species away from their natural habitat
  2. In-situ conservation is the type of conservation of species in its natural ecosystem or manmade ecosystem

Answer: B) In-situ conservation is the type of conservation of species in its natural ecosystem or manmade ecosystem

Explanation:

In situ conservation is the type of conservation of species in its natural ecosystem or manmade ecosystem.

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60. What is Ex-situ conservation?

  1. Ex-situ Conservation means the conservation of species particularly endangered species away from their natural habitat
  2. Ex-situ conservation is the type of conservation of species in its natural ecosystem or manmade ecosystem

Answer: A) Ex-situ Conservation means the conservation of species particularly endangered species away from their natural habitat

Explanation:

Ex-situ Conservation means the conservation of species particularly endangered species away from their natural habitat.

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61. What are Primary air pollutants?

  1. Primary air pollutants are those which are emitted directly into the atmosphere and remain in the form in which they are emitted
  2. Primary air pollutants are produced in air by the interaction between two or more primary pollutants or by a reaction between atmospheric constituents

Answer: A) Primary air pollutants are those which are emitted directly into the atmosphere and remain in the form in which they are emitted

Explanation:

Primary air pollutants are those which are emitted directly into the atmosphere and remain in the form in which they are emitted.

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62. What are Secondary air pollutants?

  1. Secondary air pollutants are those which are emitted directly into the atmosphere and remain in the form in which they are emitted
  2. Secondary air pollutants are produced in air by the interaction between two or more primary pollutants or by a reaction between atmospheric constituents

Answer: B) Secondary air pollutants are produced in air by the interaction between two or more primary pollutants or by a reaction between atmospheric constituents

Explanation:

Secondary air pollutants are produced in air by the interaction between two or more primary pollutants or by a reaction between atmospheric constituents.

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63. Which of the following is the example of primary pollutants?

  1. Carbon monoxide
  2. Oxides of sulphur
  3. Hydrocarbons
  4. All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

Explanation:

Primary pollutants include, Carbon monoxide, Oxides of sulphur, Hydrocarbons, hydrogen cyanide, etc.

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64. How many types of air pollutants are there?

  1. 3 types
  2. 6 types
  3. 2 types
  4. None of the above

Answer: C) 2 types

Explanation:

There are two types of air pollutants: Primary air pollutants and secondary air pollutants.

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65. Which types of air pollutants include ozone (O3 )?

  1. Primary air pollutant
  2. Secondary air pollutant

Answer: B) Secondary air pollutant

Explanation:

Secondary air pollutant includes ozone, peroxyacetyl nitrate acid mist, etc.

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66. ____ air pollutants are those which contain carbon and hydrogen as the main constituents along with other elements such as oxygen, nitrogen, etc.

  1. Organic
  2. Inorganic

Answer: A) Organic

Explanation:

Organic air pollutants are those which contain carbon and hydrogen as the main constituents along with other elements such as oxygen, nitrogen, etc.

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67. ____ Air pollutants are finely divided solid and liquid dispersed in the atmosphere.

  1. Particulate
  2. Gaseous

Answer: A) Particulate

Explanation:

Particulate Air pollutants are finely divided solid and liquid dispersed in the atmosphere.

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68. What is smog?

  1. Smog is a liquid particle and droplets formed by the condensation of vapors
  2. Smog is a harmful mixture of smoke formed by incomplete combustion of organic material

Answer: B) Smog is a harmful mixture of smoke formed by incomplete combustion of organic material

Explanation:

Smog is a harmful mixture of smoke formed by incomplete combustion of organic material.

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69. What is Photochemical smog?

  1. Photochemical Smog is liquid particles and droplets formed by the condensation of vapors
  2. Photochemical Smog is a harmful mixture of smoke formed by incomplete combustion of organic material
  3. Photochemical smog is the mixture of reactants and products that result from the interaction of volatile organic compounds
  4. All of the above

Answer: C) Photochemical smog is the mixture of reactants and products that result from the interaction of volatile organic compounds

Explanation:

Photochemical smog is the mixture of reactants and products that result from the interaction of volatile organic compounds.

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70. Photochemical smog is oxidizing in nature or reducing in nature?

  1. Photochemical Smog is Oxidizing in nature
  2. Photochemical Smog is Reduced in nature

Answer: A) Photochemical Smog is Oxidizing in nature

Explanation:

Photochemical Smog is Oxidizing in nature

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71. What are diffused sources of water pollution?

  1. The sources which are readily identified at a single location are known as Diffused sources
  2. The Sources of generalized discharge water whose location cannot be easily identified are known as Diffused sources

Answer: B) The Sources of generalized discharge water whose location cannot be easily identified are known as Diffused sources

Explanation:

The Sources of generalized discharge water whose location cannot be easily identified are known as Diffused sources.

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72. Which of the following method is used to control photochemical smog?

  1. Incineration
  2. Absorption
  3. Adsorption
  4. Condensation
  5. All of the above

Answer: E) All of the above

Explanation:

Incineration, Absorption, Adsorption, and Condensation are the following method which is used to control photochemical smog.

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73. Which are Point sources of water pollution?

  1. The sources which are readily identified at a single location are known as Point sources
  2. The Sources of generalized discharge water whose location cannot be easily identified are known as Point sources

Answer: A) The sources which are readily identified at a single location are known as Point sources

Explanation:

The sources which are readily identified at a single location are known as Point sources.

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74. What is BOD (Biochemical oxygen demand) test?

  1. BOD Test gives the amount of oxygen required by biological active material
  2. BOD Test gives the amount of oxygen required by biological activity as well as inactive material

Answer: A) BOD Test gives the amount of oxygen required by biological active material

Explanation:

BOD Test gives the amount of oxygen required by biological active material.

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75. What is the COD (Chemical oxygen demand) test?

  1. COD Test gives the amount of oxygen required by biological active material
  2. COD Test gives the amount of oxygen required by biological activity as well as inactive material

Answer: B) COD Test gives the amount of oxygen required by biological activity as well as inactive material

Explanation:

COD Test gives the amount of oxygen required by biological activity as well as inactive material.

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76. Among the BOD test and COD text which test is preferred for industrial waste?

  1. COD Test
  2. BOD Test

Answer: A) COD Test

Explanation:

COD (Chemical oxygen demand) Test is preferred for industrial waste.

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77. State whether the statement is true or false – 'The value of COD is always more than the value of BOD'.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: A) True

Explanation:

The value of COD is always more than the value of BOD because cellulose present in sewage is not readily assessed in the BOD test.

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78. Which of the following is the biggest limitation of the COD test?

  1. The time required for the COD test is long and less arbitrary.
  2. The test is applicable only in the case of biodegradable organic matter.
  3. The test cannot differentiate between biologically active and inactive organic matter.
  4. A high concentration of active Bacteria is required to be present in the sample of sewage

Answer: C) The test cannot differentiate between biologically active and inactive organic matter

Explanation:

The biggest limitation of the COD test is that the test cannot differentiate between biologically active and inactive organic matter.

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79. The biggest limitation of the COD test is that the test cannot differentiate between biologically active and inactive organic matter.

  1. The dispersion method should be employed to weaken the effects of pollutants.
  2. Fission Reaction should be minimized as far as possible.
  3. Production of radioisotope should be minimized.
  4. All of the above.

Answer: D) All of the above

Explanation:

The following measure will reduce radioactive pollution:

  • The dispersion method should be employed to weaken the effects of pollutants.
  • Fission Reaction should be minimized as far as possible.
  • Production of radioisotope should be minimized.

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80. The process of recovery of hazardous substances from soil or groundwater contaminated with municipal or Industrial waste by using plants is called ____?

  1. Phytoremediation
  2. Augmentation
  3. Inundation
  4. Inoculation

Answer: A) Phytoremediation

Explanation:

The process of recovery of hazardous substances from soil or groundwater contaminated with municipal or Industrial waste by using plants is called phytoremediation.

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81. What is a sound level meter?

  1. A device that is used records sound.
  2. A device that is used to measure sound.
  3. A unit that counts the frequency of sound.
  4. A unit that counts the pitch of the sound.

Answer: B) A device that is used to measure sound

Explanation:

The sound level meter is a device that is used to measure sound.

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82. What is the normal hearing audio frequency for a young healthy person?

  1. 10-1000 Hz
  2. 16-20000 Hz
  3. 10-100000Hz
  4. None of the above

Answer: B) 16-20000 Hz

Explanation:

16-20000 Hz is the normal hearing audio frequency for a young healthy person.

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83. Which of the following measure is effective in controlling traffic noise?

  1. Proper Highway planning and design can reduce noise control effectively
  2. Underground tunnels can effectively reduce traffic noise.
  3. Trees plantation along the sides of the road can reduce the noise level.
  4. All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

Explanation:

Measures which will control the traffic noise are as follows:

  • Proper Highway planning and design can reduce noise control effectively
  • Underground tunnels can effectively reduce traffic noise.
  • Trees plantation along the sides of the road can reduce the noise level.

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84. ____ is one of the most effective methods of solid waste treatment in which waste is burnt in a properly designed furnace under suitable temperature and operating conditions?

  1. Incineration
  2. Augmentation
  3. Inundation
  4. Inoculation

Answer: A) Incineration

Explanation:

Incineration is one of the most effective methods of solid waste treatment in which waste is burnt in a properly designed furnace under suitable temperature and operating conditions.

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85. ____ Is a high-temperature thermal process also an alternative to an incineration.

  1. Incineration
  2. Inundation
  3. Inoculation
  4. Pyrolysis

Answer: D) Pyrolysis

Explanation:

Pyrolysis is a high-temperature thermal process and also an alternative to incineration.

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86. In this method, Municipal waste is pulverized in grinding machines to reduce its volume and physical character.

  1. Incineration
  2. Inundation
  3. Inoculation
  4. Pyrolysis
  5. Pulverization

Answer: E) Pulverization

Explanation:

Pulverization is a method in which Municipal waste is pulverized in grinding machines to reduce its volume and physical character.

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87. What is E-waste?

  1. All the files which are not used on computers or all over the internet are known as E-waste.
  2. All junk electronics, television sets, computers, monitors refrigerators, chips, and medical equipment are known as E-waste

Answer: B) All junk electronics, television sets, computers, monitors refrigerators, chips, and medical equipment are known as E-waste

Explanation:

All junk electronics, television sets, computers, monitors refrigerators, chips, and medical equipment are known as E-waste.

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88. Do E-waste is harmful to human life?

  1. Yes
  2. No

Answer: A) Yes

Explanation:

Electronics disposed of by landfilling causes serious health hazards as most of these products contain arsenic, cadmium, Mercury, etc.

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89. In disaster management to eliminate or reduce the probability of occurrence of a disaster or reduce the unavoidable effects of the disaster is known as ____?

  1. Mitigation
  2. Emergency stage
  3. Preparedness
  4. Post-disaster stage

Answer: A) Mitigation

Explanation:

In disaster management eliminating or reducing the probability of occurrence of a disaster or reducing the unavoidable effects of the disaster is known as mitigation.

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90. What is Inter-generational equity?

  1. According to this aspect, we should conserve for our future generation
  2. According to this aspect, the development process should seek to minimize wealth gaps within and between Nations

Answer: A) According to this aspect, we should conserve for our future generation

Explanation:

According to this aspect we should conserve for our future generation.

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91. What is Intra-generational equity?

  1. According to this aspect, we should conserve for our future generation
  2. According to this aspect, the development process should seek to minimize wealth gaps within and between Nations

Answer: B) According to this aspect, the development process should seek to minimize wealth gaps within and between Nations

Explanation:

According to this aspect development process should seek to minimize wealth gaps within and between Nations.

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92. What do you mean by consumerism?

  1. Consumerism refers to the consumption of resources by the people.
  2. Consumerism refers to the consumption of non-renewable resources by the people.
  3. Consumerism refers to the consumption of renewable resources by the people.
  4. None of the above

Answer: A) Consumerism refers to the consumption of resources by the people

Explanation:

Consumerism refers to the consumption of resources by the people.

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93. What is an environmental impact assessment?

  1. Environmental impact assessment is actively designed to identify and protect wildlife.
  2. Environmental impact assessment is actively designed to identify and protect the impact on by physical environment and on human health and wellbeing of Legislative policies.

Answer: B) Environmental impact assessment is actively designed to identify and protect the impact on by physical environment and on human health and wellbeing of Legislative policies

Explanation:

Environmental impact assessment is actively designed to identify and protect the impact on by physical environment and on human health and wellbeing of Legislative policies.

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94. ____ is a documentation of the information and estimates of impacts derived from the various stages of the EIA process.

  1. EIS (Environmental impact statement)
  2. EIA (Environmental impact assessment)

Answer: A) EIS (Environmental impact statement)

Explanation:

EIS (Environmental impact statement) is a documentation of the information and estimates of impacts derived from the various stages of the EIA process.

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95. Which of the following powers comes under the central pollution control board (CPCD)?

  1. Organizes comprehensive programs on pollution-related issues for mass media
  2. Organizes training-related programs for the prevention and control of pollution.
  3. Prepare Guidelines for treatment and disposal of sewage and trade effluents.
  4. All of the above.

Answer: D) All of the above

Explanation:

Following powers comes under the central pollution control board (CPCD):

  • Organizes comprehensive programs on pollution-related issues for mass media
  • Organizes training-related programs for the prevention and control of pollution.
  • Prepare Guidelines for treatment and disposal of sewage and trade effluents.

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96. The attack on marble is termed as ____?

  1. Leprosy
  2. Marble leprosy
  3. Acid rain
  4. None of the above

Answer: B) Marble leprosy

Explanation:

The attack on marble is termed marble leprosy.

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97. Which of the following measures is used to control acid rain?

  1. By controlling the sources of NOx and SOx from anthropogenic sources.
  2. Using lime
  3. All of the above
  4. None of the above

Answer: C) All of the above

Explanation:

By controlling the sources of NOx and SOx from anthropogenic sources and by Using lime we can overcome acid rain.

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98. Reducing the consumption of fossil fuels such as coal and petroleum will control the greenhouse effect.
Is this statement true or false?

  1. True
  2. False

Answer: A) True

Explanation:

By reducing the consumption of fossil fuels such as coal and petroleum will control the greenhouse effect.

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99. In the pre-disaster stage which two stages come?

  1. Mitigation and Emergency stage
  2. Mitigation and preparedness stage
  3. preparedness and emergency stage
  4. Only mitigation

Answer: B) Mitigation and preparedness stage

Explanation:

Pre-disaster stage includes Mitigation and preparedness stage.

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100. Which of the following greenhouse gas is contributed by cattle farming?

  1. Carbon monoxide
  2. Methane
  3. Nitrous oxide
  4. None of the above

Answer: B) Methane

Explanation:

Methane is a gas released by the digestive processes of cattle and hence cattle farming also contributes to the greenhouse effect.

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